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brupp
Veteran Member
Posts: 165
5/12/2016 5:41 PM
Hello - Let's say you have a multiple line PO, & when the invoice is applied, at least 1 line creates a PO cost message. Do you hold payment until the invoice can be paid in its entirety or do you pay on the matched lines per normal terms, then pay the discrepant line(s) at a later time once the cost message is resolved? And is either direction dictated by a setting in Lawson? Thanks.
JimY
Veteran Member
Posts: 510
5/13/2016 9:28 AM
We don't pay until the invoice can be paid in its entirety. We don't short pay. I don't believe there is a setting in Lawson, its just a policy on our part.
Kat V
Veteran Member
Posts: 1020
5/13/2016 1:25 PM
I don't believe the invoice can be released until the message is addressed in some form. You can choose chargeback to short pay the invoice, but I think it has to be a deliberate action - not something that can just occur.
JonA
Veteran Member
Posts: 1162
5/13/2016 5:52 PM
I believe Kat is right. The cost message has to be answered before the invoice can be released for payment. You could be losing discounts because the buyers aren't answering the cost messages within the discount period. I have a Crystal report that looks at cost message aging by buyer. I've attached the file, just change .doc to .rpt in the file name. This site doesn't seem to allow uploads of .rpt.
Attachments
Buyer Cost Message CrossTab Report ODBC.doc
brupp
Veteran Member
Posts: 165
5/17/2016 2:29 PM
Thanks everyone!
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