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Last Post 05/17/2016 10:29 AM by  brupp
Vendor Payments
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brupp
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UC Health
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05/12/2016 1:41 PM
    Hello - Let's say you have a multiple line PO, & when the invoice is applied, at least 1 line creates a PO cost message. Do you hold payment until the invoice can be paid in its entirety or do you pay on the matched lines per normal terms, then pay the discrepant line(s) at a later time once the cost message is resolved? And is either direction dictated by a setting in Lawson? Thanks.
    JimY
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    05/13/2016 5:28 AM
    We don't pay until the invoice can be paid in its entirety. We don't short pay. I don't believe there is a setting in Lawson, its just a policy on our part.
    Kat V
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    05/13/2016 9:25 AM
    I don't believe the invoice can be released until the message is addressed in some form. You can choose chargeback to short pay the invoice, but I think it has to be a deliberate action - not something that can just occur.
    JonA
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    05/13/2016 1:52 PM
    I believe Kat is right. The cost message has to be answered before the invoice can be released for payment. You could be losing discounts because the buyers aren't answering the cost messages within the discount period. I have a Crystal report that looks at cost message aging by buyer. I've attached the file, just change .doc to .rpt in the file name. This site doesn't seem to allow uploads of .rpt.
    Jon Athey - Supply Chain Analyst - Materials Management - MidMichigan Health
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    brupp
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    05/17/2016 10:29 AM
    Thanks everyone!
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