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brupp

Veteran Member

Posts: 165

New Poster

5/12/2016 5:41 PM

Hello - Let's say you have a multiple line PO, & when the invoice is applied, at least 1 line creates a PO cost message. Do you hold payment until the invoice can be paid in its entirety or do you pay on the matched lines per normal terms, then pay the discrepant line(s) at a later time once the cost message is resolved? And is either direction dictated by a setting in Lawson? Thanks.

JimY

Veteran Member

Posts: 510

5/13/2016 9:28 AM

We don't pay until the invoice can be paid in its entirety. We don't short pay. I don't believe there is a setting in Lawson, its just a policy on our part.

Kat V

Veteran Member

Posts: 1020

New Poster

Engaged Reader

Avid Reader

5/13/2016 1:25 PM

I don't believe the invoice can be released until the message is addressed in some form. You can choose chargeback to short pay the invoice, but I think it has to be a deliberate action - not something that can just occur.

JonA

Veteran Member

Posts: 1163

5/13/2016 5:52 PM

I believe Kat is right. The cost message has to be answered before the invoice can be released for payment. You could be losing discounts because the buyers aren't answering the cost messages within the discount period. I have a Crystal report that looks at cost message aging by buyer. I've attached the file, just change .doc to .rpt in the file name. This site doesn't seem to allow uploads of .rpt.

Attachments

__50280__0__Buyer Cost Message CrossTab Report ODBC.doc

brupp

Veteran Member

Posts: 165

New Poster

5/17/2016 2:29 PM

Thanks everyone!