Term status and final pay

Here's an example of what we do to handle this. The employee has an action to change their status to what we call TP - Termination Pending, this status still allows payment of final funds, etc. Then we have a process to move all TP status' to TA = Termination final (which is a No pay status) at the end of the month following the TP status. Just anther way to work around timing issues that happen in the real world.

Unfortunately, in S3, there isn't any indicator - either you're allowed pay or you're not. Because of this, we use a 2 step termination process - we have a "term pend" status code (that is updated immediately) that allows a final pay, but removes the employee from headcounts so that a new person can be moved into the position. We also put a "term final" action in pending status which is updated on the last day of the month. Our automation rules are set up to stop the benefits as applicable - ie life insurance as of term date, health as of the last day of the month. We are a monthly payroll and pay current so we need to ensure that benefit premium amounts come out of the employee for the month in which they are terminating, and this process allows us to do that.

scuba80, most organizations I have worked with use a two-stage termination process. They enter two actions when terminating the employee, i.e. two different status codes "TP" -term pending (allows payment) then "TF" - term final (doesn't allow payment). They make sure employees never stay in the TP status for > 30 days, etc. Hopefully that answers your question.

We also use a two step term process, a Term pend that allows pay but no benefits and then a term final.

We also use a two-step process; SE which allows us to pay and SF which does not.

Thank you for your feedback. As I have said in my previous postings, I am new to Lawson/Infor and I am still trying to learn the processes. To term somebody twice does not make sense to me. Knowing what I know now, I can understand it, but from a process and business perspective, it does not make sense. Our organization terms over 600 per year and for the HR staff go through this process twice, it is going to be tough sell on my part to convince them.

HR enters two actions on PA52 when they get the term notification. A TERMPEND which is immediate = Y, and a TERMFINAL which is immediate = N, and set the TERMFINAL action for 30 days after the term. Then when we run PA100 as part of the pre-payroll process it will pick up any TERMFINAL actions. It really works well to make the benefits end when they are supposed to on the TERMPEND and it allows the final PTO accrual, and then do the TERMFINAL when we are sure that there are no lingering checks to process to get them into a non-pay status.

Your other option is to change your term status to one that allows pay - you'll just need to ensure that someone is vigilant and stopping any payment options (time records, etc.) in a timely manner. And we term over 600 people every pay period   PS - you don't say what version you're on, but the functionality of the deduction start and stop dates that was added in v9 should assist you with deductions and when they come out of pay.

If you use Process Flow or Process Automation you could work-flow enable the TERMPEND, and have the flow create the TERMFINAL action 30 days out. That way your users only have to enter the TERMPEND action.

so jealous of everyone that has process flow working